I found this reddit thread about a data map on the topic:
https://www.reddit.com/r/dataisbeau...n_homicides_per_100000_residents_by_us_state/
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Lots of people in the comments point to a correlation between African American population and gun homicides. On freaking Reddit.
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Someone also linked this, with the title "Murders In US Very Concentrated: 54% Of US Counties In 2014 Had Zero Murders, 2% Of Counties Have 51% Of The Murders"
https://crimeresearch.org/2017/04/n...54-us-counties-2014-zero-murders-69-1-murder/
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There's also this, which seems to indicate that rate of gun ownership is not a key factor:
https://www.businessinsider.com/gun-ownership-by-state-2015-7
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Someone also linked this, with the title "Murders In US Very Concentrated: 54% Of US Counties In 2014 Had Zero Murders, 2% Of Counties Have 51% Of The Murders"
https://crimeresearch.org/2017/04/n...54-us-counties-2014-zero-murders-69-1-murder/
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Of course, correlation does not prove causation. But there is a strong statistical correlation in state data between gun ownership (measured in various ways) and homicides.
And the international data are even more overwhelming. Countries with lots of guns in circulation have lots of gun homicides. And countries that have few guns in circulation have fewer gun homicides and fewer overall homicides. Once again correlation doesn't prove causality.
How would you look at the correlation of the original map and this chart from FBI crime data (the infamous table 43a?)
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I mean, I guess my heat and humidity could stand up in some places. But not as well as racial correlations.
How would you look at the correlation of the original map and this chart from FBI crime data (the infamous table 43a?)
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I mean, I guess my heat and humidity could stand up in some places. But not as well as racial correlations.
I don't think I've argued that race is not a relevant variable.
I have argued there is a correlation between rates of gun ownership and rates of homicide.
Obviously this is simply systemic racism and all the whites are getting away with their murders
It doesn't hold up well in Utah, Montana, Idaho, etc
If not the result of systemic racism, including past practices such as slavery, segregation and denial of various rights, what else could explain the higher crime rates of blacks. Just asking.
Is it inferior family structure?
And where does that inferior family structure have its roots? It seems to be a multi-generational phenomenon.
Someone also linked this, with the title "Murders In US Very Concentrated: 54% Of US Counties In 2014 Had Zero Murders, 2% Of Counties Have 51% Of The Murders"
https://crimeresearch.org/2017/04/n...54-us-counties-2014-zero-murders-69-1-murder/
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I know you are all agenda, and no facts these days...
But I'll ask anyway. Do you the more than doubling of black babies born to single mothers over the last 50 years because our country has gotten more racist? 77% born to single mothers in 2015... compared to 30% in 1970
I know you are all agenda, and no facts these days...
But I'll ask anyway. Do you the more than doubling of black babies born to single mothers over the last 50 years because our country has gotten more racist? 77% born to single mothers in 2015... compared to 30% in 1970
I wouldn't ascribe that to racism. I believe the proportion of white babies born to single mothers has also increased. This would suggest some common causes at work that transcends race.
However, there is indeed a racial component to single parent households that has been quite persistent over time.
Well, if you believe like I do, that two parent household is the biggest predictor of future success (and thus, lack of crime)... then we ascribe certain issues to this problem. And since, this has dramatically increased in more recent history, it doesn't fit the system racism narrative like you are so desperate for it to.
IIWII