That's fine. That's a point of view, and I certainly understand and to some degree sympathize with it.
I just don't see how you can argue it from this denial-of-liberty point of view.
You often argue, in the context of income inequality discussions, that no one is forced to do anything in the labor market. That if they are unsatisfied with their lot in life, they can acquire more skills and find a better job. Why do you all of the sudden assume that if some service were guaranteed by the government, individuals would have to be forced to fill those positions? Sanitation service is often provided by the government. It's unappealing work to some, but those jobs seem to get filled, don't they?
An attorney might be able to make more money in private practice, yet some of them choose positions in public service, as prosecutors or judges. Are they being compelled to do that, just because the services pertain to rights guaranteed by the state? If a basic standard of healthcare were guaranteed, do you not imagine that there would still be incentive for skilled practitioners and specialists to practice? Is it also not logical to assume that if the government were to mandate such a standard, it would also provide support and assistance for individuals to acquire the necessary skills and training to deliver it?
In short, I don't think I'm the one being obtuse.